How does the official scorer of a baseball game decide if a crazy ball gets by the catcher because it was a wild pitch (mistake of the pitcher), or a pass ball (mistake of the catcher)? Also, for each case (wild pitch or pass ball), if it brings in a run, does the batter get an RBI? Last, does the catcher get an error for a pass ball? …Or, is it scored as PB (perhaps) for pass ball?
Extra credit: If the batter can run to 1st base on the third strike (because of a pass ball) and brings in a run, is that an RBI? What if he reaches first base by being hit by a pitch and brings in a run? (i.e., with bases loaded in both scenarios)?
First of all, it’s a passed ball. The scorer uses judgment just like an error. Could the catcher have come up with the ball using ordinary effort? If the scorer deems he could have, it’s a passed ball. Otherwise, a wild pitch. It needs to be one or the other to account for the runner’(s) advancement. No RBI if a run comes in. I believe it is no error (only 95% sure)
Passed balls aren’t scored as catcher’s errors; it’s recorded as a separate statistic. Not sure about the RBI situation, but if a run scores as a result of a passed ball, it is not charged as an “earned” run (ie…doesn’t affect the pitcher’s ERA). A run that scores via wild pitch is charged as an earned run.
I believe that if the ball touches the ground in front of the catcher, it’s almost always a wild pitch. If the pitch is outside the batters box, it’s a wild pitch. I think to be a passed ball it had to be a reasonably good pitch. If it’s off the mark but the catchers glove makes contact, it’s usually a passed ball. I don’t know if those are the scorers rules of thumb but I have heard that from various catcher/broadcasters.
You don’t get any RBI on wild pitches or passed balls. No error is credited and any runs are unearned.
Official Scorer’s Rules for MLB. Earned runs is section 10.16. Runs are considered earned if scored via wild pitch (10.16a), but not passed ball. (10.16d)
Yes, but in all such situations you reconstruct the inning to see if the guy would have scored anyway. In the aforementioned example, the runner on 3rd would have scored on the home run anyway, so the run is earned.
Exception: If the bases are loaded and the batter walks, an RBI is always credited. If the pitch is wild enough that the runner on second base scores, however, that second run is not “batted in”.
Also, a swinging strike is when the pitch is “struck at by the batter, but missed”. The ump could conceivably rule that although the bat went around, the batter didn’t strike at the pitch, therefore it’s a ball instead.
The best answer is “it’s what the scorers believe it is”. For example, take the famous wild pitch that Bob Stanley threw to tie Game 6 of the 1986 World Series. The pitch was knee high and way inside (batter Mookie Wilson had to jacknife out of the way). Catcher Rich Gedman’s glove barely grazed the ball, and Gedman later admitted he should have caught the ball. So why was it called a wild pitch? Because the official scorers said Wilson’s reaction to the ball convinced them it was more Stanley’s fault than Gedman’s.
As mentioned by others, in this particular scenario, the run is earned. But NOT because the next batter hit a home run, but because an earned run is charged on the wild pitch.
On the other hand, I think:
this statement is incorrect. I don’t believe that an inning is *ever *reconstructed to see if a guy would have scored anyway.
The reconstruction of an inning is not practical, and it’s also not logical. You cannot predict what would have happened in an inning based on what happened before in that inning. Pitchers throw different pitches based on different scenarios. Fielders position themselves differently based on what is happening in the game.
So, in the scenario where there is a runner on third (and has reached there with no error involved), there are two options we are considering:
Wild pitch, with runner from third scoring and the next batter hits home run;
Passed ball, with runner from third scoring and the next batter hits home run;
In 1), the first run is earned, and the second run is also earned.
In 2), the first run is unearned, but the second run is earned.
Also on strike three with either first base empty or two out, and the batter makes it to first safely.
As for the case where the bases are loaded and ball four gets away from the catcher: it’s only a wild pitch or passed ball if some runner advances a base as a result of the ball getting away. All the runners are entitled to advance one base in this case, so the batter gets an RBI as a result of the base on balls. It’s only a wild pitch or passed ball in this case if some runner advances two bases.
Another thing: if the pitch hits the ground before passing home plate and a runner advances as a result, it’s automatically a wild pitch (see rule 10.13).
No RBI is credited when a run scores as the result of a dropped third strike. The runner who scores is ruled to have advanced as a result of a wild pitch or passed ball. On the other hand, if the bases are loaded and the batter either walks or is hit by a pitch, he is credited with an RBI.
Sorry, you are, of course, correct. I should have not said that the official scorer does not reconstruct the inning due to errors to establish earned vs. unearned runs. I was a bit too specific in my answer. I was referring to the one scenario that was given in the thread, NOT the general rule of how earned runs vs. unearned runs are calculated.
My reply is correct (I believe) for the scenario proposed by notfrommensa, but it is incorrect regarding reconstruction of innings in other situations. :smack: