(1) It is assumed that being gay has biological origins (people ar “born gay”)
(2) Gays in less tolerant societies ended up marrying people of the opposite sex,and had children, thus passing on their genes.
(3) Now, in societies where there is tolerance for gays, they do not marry people of the opposite sex. As a result only a few, I would think, have children, and so their genes are not passed onto the next generation.
So, do the above facts imply that in the long term, the number of people who are gay will diminish?
If not, which of the above points is false?
Is there a problem with (1)? Is it possible that while being gay has biological origins, it is not something that is inherited?
I should point out that for it to be an inherited trait, it does not mean that 100% of the children of gay people will be gay, just that the children have a higher probability of being gay than the children of non-gay people.
If this is the case, then even if no gays ever had children, there would still be some people born gay from non-gay parents. However, the numbers will be much lower than if most gays had children, which is what I assume happened/happens in less tolerant societies.