We were watching “From Hell” starring Johnny Depp tonite. In two scenes, they used the word fuck. If you haven’t seen the movie, it was in the Jack the Ripper, London era.
My wife said they didn’t use that word then.
I thought about it and said they could’ve.
Any english majors out there to answer if it was part of the language there and then?
That would seem to indicate that the origin lies way back in the old Germanic languages, before the split between Western and Northern Germanic Languages (English and Dutch are Western Germanic languages; Swedish is Northern). Language family tree is here.
Fuck means Fornication Under Commission to the King, and has to do with legalizing prostitution in some towns in old england. I did a report on this in the fucking ninth grade because I smarted off to a teacher. I found all my sources in the local library.
No indeed - check my post; based on these sources, it seems apparent that the origins of the word lie way back before Dutch, Swedish, German and English became distincy, modern languages. As for its use in English, I believe that the excerpt I quoted from Dictionary.com is, if not the, then one of the earliest examples of its use in print - in the 16th century. It undoubtedly was in common use well before then, but subject to censure because of its vulgarity. This is well before the invention of acronyms, which are a very modern creation.
It’s no more true that it stands for Fornication Under the Commission of the King than it is true that golf is an acronym for Gentlemen Only, Ladies Forbidden.