You dismiss the sites I listed as having “political axes to grind”. And these do not, I take it?
It is more fruitful to deal with the information, rather than casting aspersions on the authour. So I will avoid giving my opinion of the legitimacy, or otherwise, of these sites.
I will deal with the quoted exerpts:
“It is commonly thought in Israel that the vast influx of Jews from Arab countries was caused by widespread Arab persecution. That’s about half the truth. It is certainly true that there was a rise in tension between Arabs and Jews in Arab countries such as Egypt, Morocco, and Iraq after the creation of Israel and the 1948 war, which led to riots lootings, and some killings.”
So then the account in the above link is, essentially, true - according to the site you chose. The Jews did face persecution.
“But the other untold part of the story is that the early Zionists proactively organised and encouraged the wholesale emigration of Jews from communities like Iraq, exaggerating the dangers Jews would face if they stayed. Many Sephardic Jews said years later that they did not really know what had hit them until they were firmly ensconced in the new residential developments of southern Israel, speaking Hebrew and cut off from the Arab world that they had known.”
This seems on its face and without citations, to be incedible.
First, what exactly is “wrong” with encouraging people to emigrate - when they faced persecution in their home country?
Second, were these dangers “exaggerated”? Some evidence of this would be nice. Current history demonstrates that, on the contrary, the dangers were very real - I myself would not like to be living under Saddam right now.
Third, would Iraqi Jews have been better off in Iraq? If so, why don’t they want to go back? I am sure they could have, if they really wanted to - Israel hardly holds them prisoner.
In sum, I find it difficult to credit that an entire minority, over a very large area, could be convinced to leave their ancient homelands merely by Israeli propaganda.
As for the second quote:
“Moreover: even though Jews were indeed harassed (by the people and/or regimes) in Arab countries following the 1948 war, blaming the Arabs of ethnic cleansing is shamefully cynical when it is imputed by the very Zionists who demanded “let my people go”, or by the same Israel that did all it could to force those very countries to let their Jews leave. The global Zionist pressure on each and every country, from the Soviet Union to Syria, to let its Jewish citizens go, was part of Israel’s efforts to consolidate its Jewish majority; that is why Israel always urged Western countries not to let those Jewish immigrants in, lest they fail to make Aliya”
This one contains some frankly bizzare claims - Israel, “pressuring” the Soviet Union? Is this fellow for real? What was Israel going to do, invade the Soviets? 
I myself see absolutely nothing in even this strange quote to indicate that the above account was wrong - this fellow’s point of view is that it doesn’t lie in the Zionist mouth to complain about “ethnic cleansing”, when they “forced” these countries to “let their Jews leave”. He doesn’t dispute that the Jews in question wanted to leave - indeed, he says they had good reason. But it is “shameful” and “cynical” to point this out, for some reason.
This, frankly, is a crock. Why should anyone object to “forcing” a country to “let” a minority leave - if it wants to? Are these countries prisons?
Where is the “shame” and “cynicism” in pointing out that driving your minorities to attempt to flee your country is ethnic cleansing? Even if your country benefits, by taking in refugees. Should 17th century England be ashamed of helping Hugenots fleeing France - and be precluded from critisizing France for its “dragoon” laws, which caused them to flee?
The argument just does not make sense - unless, of course, you see Israel as the font of all that is bad. This guy evidently does.
Again, neither of these cites - for all that they attempt to impute blame to Israel (or at least argue that Israel pointing out that what was done was ethnic cleaning is somehow “shameful”) - actually allege that the persecutions did not happen.
So, is the case over? If so, I take it that we can say, “the two situations are exactly parallel”. If not, why not?