I tried to post this before but got an error message, so I assume it didn’t take my apologies if this question gets posted twice, but I didn’t see it a second time so I assume it didn’t take.
I was reading another board regarding HIV. The poster claimed he his HIV- and his partner is HIV+. The HIV+ partner was just told he had prostate cancer and had some treatment which left him unable to ejaculate.
The HIV- partner says because his partner is unable to ejaculate that he is SAFER( note he didn’t say safe but SAFER). And the risk is like that for oral sex, where some HIV may be found in preseminal fluids.
This reasoning I don’t follow.
First of all would prostate cancer leave someone unable to ejaculate?
Second if you couldn’t ejaculate how could you get errect for sex in the first place? Or is that accomplished by means of Viagra or some other drug.
Thanks
It depends on the treatment (surgery +/- hormonal +/- chemotherapy =?- radiation). But, prostate cancer itself has no bearing on the ability to ejaculate.
Getting an erection is achieved by different mechansims than ejaculation. For example, in order to get hard there must be an intact set of nerves going to the penis and it must also have a relatively healthy blood supply. On the other hand, IIRC, ejaculation is controlled by nerves alone, and different ones at that than those needed for an erection. (For those interested: Point with Parasympathetic and Shoot with Sympathetic.)
Bottom line, as you can see, is that since getting an erection and ejaculating have different control mechanisms, it’s possible to come up with scenarios where the controlling factors for one, but not the other, have been damaged. That would leave one of the two (getting an erection, ejaulation) intact but not the other.
Inability to ejaculate can be one of the side effects of surgery on the prostrate. In fact, it can be one of the side effects of drugs used to treat a non-cancerous enlarged prostate.
Inability to ejaculate does not necessarily affect the ability to have an erection.
However, just because a male does not ejaculate does NOT mean there’s no fluid at all present before or during orgasm. You may recall many stories that ended “I pulled it out. How could she have gotten pregnant?”
Personally, I think the poster is playing Russian Roulette.