Note: Mods, I think this belongs in IMHO because I’m looking for opinions on how other folks would interpret this. However, I do realize that this is a subject that can turn into a debate quickly, even though that’s certainly not my intent. Feel free to move this as required.
In this thread by Qadgop the Mercotan several of the millions (myself included) are posting their sexual orientation based on the Kinsey Scale.
I have listed myself as a 0 (exclusively heterosexual) on this scale. However, given that I have had a few sexual experiences that (incidently, IMHO) involved other males, I’m wondering if I’m interpreting the intent of this scale correctly. .
It seems you are supposed to take both actual experience and fantasy into account when evaluating your Kinsey ranking, so I’ll give a little detail about both to give you an idea of the source of my confusion.
As an 11-year-old boy who had just discovered deliberate masturbation, a friend of mine and I had several sessions of masturbating in each other’s presence. There were a few times when this also included mutual masturbation (I did him, he did me), and once or twice when we “sucked” each other. I put that in quotes because we were a couple of completely inexperienced 11 year olds who had no clue about what we were doing. This almost oral sex consisted of putting the other guy’s penis in your mouth for about thirty seconds and holding it there. Since this didn’t do anything for either of us, we gave it up as a ridiculous idea even though we had heard rumors about how good “blow jobs” were supposed to be.
Now that certainly seems to qualify as homosexual behavior, and there is no doubt I enjoyed it. However, for my part, I was just an extremely horny 11-year-old boy (I’m sure that’s redundant) looking to get off. For me, the fact the only person I could do that with was a boy was a nuisance to be put up with, not something I was looking for. I was always fantasizing about girls when doing this, usually about Yolanda, a girl in my class who had gotten actual boobs that summer. So while it undoubtedly was sexual contact with a boy, I would have much preferred a girl.
Years later, during my first marriage, the now ex-wife and I had several threesomes, both MFM and FMF, and a few foursomes. Obviously, with two (or more) men and one woman all coupled (tripled? ) together at once, you’re going to have some contact with the other guy. It never occurred to me to shy away from this, and a few times it was pretty intimate contact, although no direct sex between the guys.
For my part, I enjoyed the MFM experiences more than the FMF ones. But not because I was turned on about the other guy, but because my lady enjoyed it so much more. She just loved the feeling of two or more guys, and it turned me on to see her so turned on, if you see what I mean.
As far as fantasies are concerned, I don’t remember ever having a fantasy about just another guy. I’ve had many fantasies about threesomes, foursomes, etc, but they always center around the women, and how fun it is to drive them wild while having a good time myself. As near as I can tell the other guys are necessary to the action in these scenarios but are not the object of any sexual desire on my part, just as with my real life experiences.
So in a nutshell, I’ve had a little sexual contact with the same sex, but in my mind this was incidental to the experiences as a whole, and my fantasy life and emotional involvements seem to be exclusively for the opposite sex. So I counted myself a 0 on the Kinsey scale.
But what do you think? Am I interpreting the scale correctly, or should I be a 1 or higher?