bup
April 3, 2013, 4:30pm
22
the_diego:
We know that a man’s erect penis points or curves at least 45 degrees upward when the man is standing. A woman’s vagina, on the other hand, slants inwards between 45 and 75 degrees when she’s upright. Therefore when in congress in the rear entry position, a woman’s vagina is slanting upward 15 to 45 degrees, forcing the man’s penis to lower almost level. This is an unnatural posture for the man’s tool
Objection - foundation. (Legal jargon is also sexy.)
Mine is comfortable anywhere from horizontal (if standing up) to laying flat against my stomach, and any angle in between.
On what basis do you say it’s an unnatural posture?
(emphasis in quote added)
Penny
April 3, 2013, 6:14pm
23
I am still in awe at how this has managed to be the most unsexy discussion about sex I’ve ever seen in my life (and I went to Catholic school!)
Bravo people!
It’s kind of buttsexy without the “ow, my butt” of actual buttsex.
Because we get to control the depth of penetration and plus your balls are slapping our clits. Geez, just go with it, it’s as primitive as sex can get. This isn’t something you can make better by overanalyzing it.
Shodan
April 3, 2013, 11:21pm
28
It’s also easier on my back. Oh, the joys of age.
Regards,
Does it have to be a randomized double-blind study? My mind is boggling at the thought. :eek:
Cymy
April 3, 2013, 11:43pm
30
Says who? I’ve seen fully-erect penises that do not meet this qualification. Yes, I’m certain they were not surgically altered in any non-circumcision manner.
That’s intuitively obvious.
Troppus:
Because we get to control the depth of penetration and plus your balls are slapping our clits. Geez, just go with it, it’s as primitive as sex can get. This isn’t something you can make better by overanalyzing it.
You are not an engineer are you ?
standingwave:
If A, B are two points on a line a, and A’ is a point on the same or on another line a’ then it is always possible to find a point B’ on a given side of the line a’ such that AB and A’B’ are congruent. If a segment A’B’ and a segment A"B" are congruent to the same segment AB, then segments A’B’ and A"B" are congruent to each other. On a line a, let AB and BC be two segments which, except for B, have no points in common. Furthermore, on the same or another line a’, let A’B’ and B’C’ be two segments which, except for B’, have no points in common. In that case if AB≈A’B’ and BC≈B’C’, then AC≈A’C’. If ∠ABC is an angle and if B’C’ is a ray, then there is exactly one ray B’A’ on each “side” of line B’C’ such that ∠A’B’C’≅∠ABC. Furthermore, every angle is congruent to itself. If for two triangles ABC and A’B’C’ the congruences AB≈A’B’, AC≈A’C’ and ∠BAC ≈ ∠B’A’C’ are valid, then the congruence ∠ABC ≈ ∠A’B’C’ is also satisfied.
I thought this was hilarious.
At which point the mood music will switch from Bolero to Yakety Sax .
No, we don’t know it, because for most guys it’s not true.
