There can be sex between gays; there can be gays engaging in sex; there can even be specific sexual acts (anal intercourse, fellatio, mutual masturbation, etc.) in which gays may engage if they so choose. But there is NO SUCH THING AS “GAY SEX”
no matter how many times George Will makes reference to it in his columns (decrying Supreme Court rulings and what have you)
and yes, there is such a thing as 69’ing, during which each party performs oral intercourse on the other party simultaneously, but then that’s two instances of the same sexual act, not a single act of gender-specific sex.
Um… in this usage, it’s straight sex if it’s between people of different genders, gay sex if it’s between people of the same gender. Is there something unhelpful about this usage?
I’m not a conservative and I don’t care for George Will, but there is such a thing as gay sex. It’s sex between people who are gay. Is this so terribly complicated?
Let’s see. Men having sex, oral or anal, with other men… women having sex with other women… I’d say that’s exclusively gay. Okay, bisexuals can do that too, but I think we’re making this overly complex. I know “gay sex is sex between gays” is circular, but there’s nothing derogatory or wrong about the term.
I suspect nisobar’s point is that the usage in question tends to assist the homophobes who want to point at ‘gay sex’ as some sort of specific evil, something readily and smoothly distinguishable from other sorts of sex and thus condemnable without getting any of the contempt on anyone else.
(I also know someone who says that any sex she’s involved with is clearly and obviously bisexual sex.)
I understand what you’re saying nisobar, I just don’t understand why you’re saying it. Does this usage give rise to discrimination, or some other problem?
(Okay, so this isn’t quite my day - so sue me, folks…)
Making reference to “gay sex” makes it easier for homophobes to file sex between two men (or two women) alien, and thus, contemptible. My point is that, for purposes of legal understanding of what sodomy is, it is the same activity. Thus, sodomy laws served to discriminate against people on the basis of gender, right?
Okay, so it’s clear I didn’t spend a lot of time putting the OP together, sorry…
and yes, I know, that fight is over (for now), but for purposes of understanding that people who continue to defend sodomy laws come from a different perspective (a homophobic one), those same people could/can pop up elsewhere in denying gays equal rights (whack-a-mole, anyone?) using the same twisted reasoning they used to support sodomy laws…
Homophobes would do this anyway, so who cares? Are you saying that if I stop calling it gay sex, the problem will go away? The problem is the bigotry, not the particular terminology.
Hmmm. Given the MW definition of gay as: happily excited or merry, I can truthfully announce that I’ve had gay sex many times. Why even the anticipation of sex makes me feel rather gay.
So long as you’re not being asked to: a) participate, b) watch, or c) give a narrative for the viewers at home or d) pay for the room, why not mind your own damn business, stop passing judgement on the behavior of others, and realize that what someone does with their privates is private.
But if neither participant is homosexual, Bricker, than it’s not necessarily gay.
No, I can’t think of any reason not involving massive quantities of alcohol or money why two straight guys would fellate each other, but they could, and retain their straightness.
There are certain acts that gay people are a bit more likely to do than straight people, but none that are exclusive. This doesn’t mean that gay sex isn’t an accurate-if-misleading name for sex gay people have, even if not with members of the same sex.
No, I can’t think of any reason not involving massive quantities of alcohol or money why two straight guys would fellate each other, but they could, and retain their straightness.
Is my new sig. That’s too from you.
Well, it could be two bisexual guys. Neither is gay, but both of them have every reason to want to suck cock. (Not that one needs a reason )
I did think of a situation under which a man can perform fellatio and have it be not gay sex: if his partner is a woman who is pre-operatively transsexual or non-operative transgendered. I know people are going to disagree with me on this, of course.
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