Straight women: Do you believe that straight men are easy to seduce?

If I were a spy trying to hook up with the base CO, I wouldn’t try a standard hookup, typically by the time you get to the rank you need to command a significant base you are married, and while I have been randomly hit upon on base and by offucers that fully know I was the spouse of an enlisted [hell, I carry a dependent ID card, last guy to hit on me was the opthamologist who really knew I was married dependent. Feh.] being married is no bar to being unfaithful [hell, there were multistar generals in WW2 banging their female drivers …]

If I were trying to compromise someone, I wouldn’t try a standard seduction, I would drug assist myself … there are a number of date rape drugs to aid the process, and once having compromising video to blackmail with, that would definitely be easier than trying to hook up.

But I will fully admit to back in the day when I was single and just looking to get laid, I did screw married officers and enlisted. If they showed up in a bar, there was an excellent chance they were out to get laid. I will also admit to sitting in the Bojangles near the Joint Ops base in Norfolk Va with my now husband seeing one of the married officers on his boat going into the nearby motel with a blond not his wife…

Discussing the actual question asked is analyzing, not hyper analyzing. The OP talked about a woman being able to “seduce a man she desires,” not “find some guy to bang her regardless of whether she finds that or him attractive or not”. And yes, if the OP’s question can actually answered in the affirmative, it should be trivial for an average woman to seduce Barack Obama or Bill Gates. The fact that it isn’t serves as a stark counterpoint to the claim that it’s trivial for a woman to seduce a man she desires.

That’s not what the words in the OP actually say, however, and I’m responding to the actual text in the original post and not someone’s theory on what it might say. As I’ve said before: If the question is “Is it easier for a woman to find a casual sex partner than it is for a straight man”, it’s a pretty boring and trivial ‘duh’. If the woman is actually having to seduce the man, then you need to define what you mean by ‘seduction’ and what counts as success. And you have to account for the fact that a lot of straight women simply don’t find horndogs who are out to bang anything with boobs attractive, which means that banging ‘some horny enlisted guy on base’ won’t qualify as her seducing someone she finds attractive.

You’re right, it’s not trivially easy for a woman to pick up any straight man. But if it’s a guy she likes and wants to go out with, she should try anyway.

So far I’ve managed not to have nay of those conversations. I don’t know if that’s good or bad.

Yeah, I’m absolutely certain I haven’t been in such a situation, in large part due to how few females I’ve hung out with and exactly how clear things were (not) between us.

Regarding the OP, I’d say it’s trivially clear that an attractive female can get A man, and also trivially clear that an attractive woman cannot get ANY man.

[quote=“Pantastic, post:11, topic:812440”]

. There are significantly more men into casual sex than women,

I have heard this statement before and wondered how does this work. Who do the men have sex with? The way we do it it is an exact 50/50 thing

Mathematically: for example out of a group of 10 men and 10 women: the 5 men into casual sex have sex with an average of 2 women, while the 2 women into casual sex have sex with an average of 5 men.

Many men can have sex with a few women, with each of those women having lots of male partners.

I have no idea why you think it would be an exact 50/50 thing, maybe you’re thinking of something else entirely? It works simply because someone can be into casual sex without actually having casual sex, or without having it as often as they want, or one person can have casual sex with more than one other person. So the answer is ‘who do the men have sex with?’ can be ‘more than one of them with the same woman’ or ‘no one’. If you have a pool of 50 men into casual sex and 25 women, over the course of observing them for time you could get a result like 15 men don’t have sex, 15 men and 15 women each pair off with each other, and 20 men have sex with the remaining 10 women in some combination.

If you’re thinking about the off-cited statistic that men have average more sexual partners than women, that’s not what I’m talking here. As an aside, I think there are three factors behind that particular skew. Most of those studies exclude sex workers from the poll, and the sex workers obviously skew to a high number of partners. There’s social pressure for men to simply inflate their numbers and for women to deflate theirs. And as a follow-on, there’s subtle pressure to decide that different things ‘count’ as sex which means that two people may not agree on whether they had sex, humorously referenced in the ‘37’ scene from Clerks.