[QUOTE=the raindog]
I’ve seen this line of reasoning here before, and IMO it is terminally flawed, and a bit of sleight of hand.
Certainly Paul was admonishing Timothy* to “…continue in the things that you learned and were persuaded to believe, knowing from what persons you learned them…”* (2 Tim 3:14) NWT
What would have been the things that Timothy and Paul —as first century Jews—learned?
They could have only known the Hebrew-Aramaic Scriptures. They were Jews, and while they perceived that they had found the promised Messiah, they were still practicing Judaism; for in fact the Messiah was a Jewish figure, part of the Jewish faith and hope. In time, Gentiles were invited into the Christian movement abd this offshoot of Judaism became known as Christianity.
The Christian Greek Scriptures would have been unknown to these men as bible canon.
Why?
*
Because they were living the lives, and writing the letters and epistles that generations later would become bible canon!*
This should beg the questions:
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Did the NT bible writers have any reason to believe that the stories of their lives—like the stories of their forefathers chronicled in the OT— would become if not bible canon, an enduring, divinely blessed set of texts that woud govern the lives of future generations?
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Is there a basis to believe that the immediate recepients of the NT letters saw them as approved by God? In other words, were the apostles seen as having God’s blessings?
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Historically, how were the writings of Matthew, Mark Luke, John, Paul, James Peter and Jude viewed by the Christians of the first century, and in the years that followed?
More importantly, it should beg the question of Christians:
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Are the Christian-Greek Scrpitures bible canon? What can be considered bible canon? In other words—and using the Tim 3:16 phrase, “All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness…” Is the NT “Scripture”?
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To what extent is the NT writings applicable to modern Christians, or were the NT writings limited to the first century Christians?
Furthermore, this flawed argument ignores the fact that the Jews of the OT recognized that there relationship with God was progressive; that over 1000 years of writings God had numerous servants that served as judges, leaders, kings and prophets and all of their teachings, writings and edicts became not just addendums to their Laws, but the totaility of the Holy Scriptures. Over the full span of the OT teachings one leader after another rose up and were said to have God’s explicit blessing and direction. In fact, any reference bible shows the tremondous continuity that existed over this span.
Consider too, that the NT writers showed the same continuity. There are thousands of references in the NT that reference the OT.
On top of all this…The Apostles of the NT made changes to the program, right? The Mosaic Law was abrogated, in favor of the Law of the Christ. If one rejects the NT as bible canon, we eviscerate Christianity. Is that reasonable?
So the final question must be, "Is there a reasonable basis to retroactively apply the term “All Scrpiture” at 1 Timothy 3:16, 17 to the New Testament and to modern Christians?"* (*****retroactively because the context of this text is Paul writing to a young man, Timothy, who would have schooled in the Jewish law)
The answer to that qiestion not only is yes, but must be yes. If one rejects the NT as Holy Scrpiture, than the Mosaic Law must apply. It is only the NT that contains the teachings of Christ, Paul et.al.
Sure, Paul didn’t include his own writings in real time as being the texts that Timothy was to hold fast to.
But the evidence that the Jews of the OT accepted progressive teachings, that the Jews of Paul’s day took his words and writings as divinely inspired, and that the Christians who would follow the “Law of the Christ” saw them as divinely inspired is overwhelming.
In the end, is it reasonable for Cgristians to see the NT as valid bible canon and applicable to modern Christians?
Further, is it reasonable for a modern Christian to infer that the original author, the Jews of the first century who received these letters, and the earliest Christian would have seen 2 Tim 3:16 as both relevent and applicable to the NT teachings?
The answer is overwhelming yes.
[/QUOTE]
That is an excellent post. I appreciate your reasoning.
My understanding is that many of the NT writings were valued as scripture or ssen as inspired and/or blessed by God long before they were compiled into the Bible we have today.
With that being true plenty of questions still remain. How close is what we have to the original text? Who wrote the original text? There were many writings being circulated and disputed in early Christianity. Who selected which books would be deemed scripture? Was it God? Was it man? What about the other books such as the Gnostic gospels?
After considering these questions realistically how much authority do we give to the books that compile the Bible, and why? Should we expect other more current revelations from God? Why or why not?
IMHO much of the authority given to the Bible in Christianity lies not with any directive from God but from tradition. Even the quoted verse only says that scripture is helpful guidance and doesn’t grant it the ultimate authority or infallibility placed on it by too much of Christianity . I don’t have any particular problem with religious tradition per say. I do have a problem when religious tradition is mistakenly looked at as a source of authority for truth, or worse, as God’s will.
Tradition is not the will of God and I find it detrimental to the group and to humanity in general when any religious group or denomination is so heavily and emotionally invested in tradition that they can’t tell the difference.