Got me to thinking. When I had my snip job 2 years ago, the doctor made me sign a consent form. The form indicated that the procedure was permanant and not considered reversable, and would leave me completely sterile. Fine. Good. That’s what I wanted. I signed.
But the form also had a space for my wife to sign, and the doctor mandated that she sign it, in his presence, before he would perform the operation. My question is, why did I need her permission for this, when she would not need my permission for an abortion? Is this consent form a legal document? Is the doctor required to get the wifes signature?