IANA baseball fan.
I heard that the Seattle Mariners had their 5th ‘no-hitter’ game yesterday. But it sounded like someone on the opposing team was out when his fly ball was caught. If there was a fly ball, the batter must have hit it.
So why are they calling this game a ‘no-hitter’? 
No base hits, not no contact ever.
ETA: a batter can reach base on a walk, error, hit by pitch, etc. A perfect game, no batter reaches base by any means.
It’s only a hit if the batter is not put out, and the fielding team does not make an error. No matter how hard he hit the ball, which probably would have been a strike instead of a ball but was still physically a ball the entire time. 
A hit is not just contact with the ball, it’s a specifically defined statistic that means a player has hit the ball and made it safely on base, and more specifically advanced his teams position on the bases.
There are a variety of ways a player can hit the ball, and not be put out, and still not get a ‘hit’. For instance there is the Fielders Choice, the player hits the ball, it is not caught in the air, but picked up by a fielder, and he decides to throw out a runner at second base instead of throwing out the batter at first base. The batter is safe on first base but he’s not given credit for a hit because as a result the runner was put out anyway and the teams position on the bases has actually declined. Previously they had one man on base and no outs, now they have one man on base and one out.
IIRC, Pete Rose once got a winning run off a complete-game nine-inning no-hitter pitcher.
Ken Johnson
Rose reached second on an error, went to third on a ground out and scored on another error.
Furthermore, why is it called a strike when, indeed, no ball was struck?
But yeah, hit means base hit. Base hit means a hit by which the batter reaches base safely without an error or fielder’s choice.
Why is it called a foul pole when anything hitting it is considered fair?
d/r
I have, more than once, heard baseball announcers clarify that, “it’s actually a ‘fair pole’” for viewers / listeners when a ball hits the pole.
(To the OP: ) Note that, in the term “no-hitter,” you should be thinking of “hit” as a noun rather than a verb.
Andy Hawkins allowed four runs in a no-hitter he pitched and lost. Walks and errors don’t count. That no-hitter doesn’t count under modern rules either, since he only went 8 innings in the road loss.
Give it a sniff and you’ll find out.
Just ftr, when the Dodgers first moved to LA, the foul poles at the Coliseum were indeed in foul territory. They didn’t get moved until after a season of special ground rules there.
Matt Young of the Red Sox did the same in 1992 (in Cleveland). Seven walks and an error. I remember listening to the game on the radio.
And why do they say dial a phone when all the phones have…
Oh wait, this is just about baseball.
The correct term of art is still “foul pole” though. It is so named because it is an extension of the foul line. (Rule 1.04 and Diagram 1.)
The reason it’s called that is simply because the *purpose *of the foul line and foul pole are to inform the players and umpires if the ball is foul. In a sense, it is actually more important to know if the ball is foul (since that stops play) than fair, (since the players then continue doing whatever they were doing.)
It seems to me the foul line and pole are more useful, and provide easier judgment, of whether or not a ball is foul by making contact with them by definition fair. Could just be what I’m used to, though.
The foul line is in fair territory. Go figure.
Come to think of it, why do they say Don Larsen threw a “perfect game” when some of his pitches weren’t strikes, and the batters managed to get wood on many of them?
Wouldn’t he have to strike everyone out on 81 pitches to have a true perfect game?
Nope, it’s a perfect game if no one gets on base. No one has ever come close to 27 strikeouts much less 81 strikes.
There have only been 77 immaculate innings (strike out the side on 9 pitches) in MLB history.