I’ll try to tell the back story succinctly.
My ex-husband passed away on May 30th of an accidental drug overdose. He had no Will. We have two sons together, now in their early twenties. As is often the case with an addiction/illness, my ex was in significant financial difficulty.
He would not have been able to qualify for a mortgage on his own and for that reason, even after our divorce, I remained on title and mortgage. Upon his death and under “rights of survivorship” (we were joint tenants) the house transferred to my name (I have remarried).
The house was in pretty poor shape, but nothing a modest budget and tons of hard work wouldn’t correct. I’ve found there are tax liens and judgments and outstanding property taxes against the house and of course the mortgage. The house is now restored and on the market.
During my ex’s funeral his father informed me that the ex borrowed a lot of money from a friend of the family. I had known he borrowed money a few years ago, (he’d told me $80,000 when he gave me a small down payment of $20,000 to begin to buy out my share of the house).
However, my ex-FIL claims the ex borrowed $160,000 from the friend.
My first thought was to repay the friend the $80,000 of which I was aware – after the house sells. After I’ve paid the real estate agent, the liens, property taxes, judgments and mortgage, I should get the money I’ve invested out. The ex and I had an agreement that he would give me my legal entitlement of 1/2 after he sold the house - I had no idea there were so many encumbrances against it.
So, the friend had no paperwork or legally binding agreement to be repaid the “loan”. 'There is no evidence in all of the ex’s effects that show that money being paid toward his debt, so all indications point to his spending the money on his drug habit.
If I were able to get any money out beyond my “fix up budget”, who would you give any additional money to?
- The friend who loaned him the money without an agreement? And perhaps enabled his drug habit to reach new levels;
- His two sons who were left nothing of any value (they can sell the house contents legally as his next-of-kin, but they won’t get much)?
- Me, as I am entitled to the property a)under survivorship; b)matrimonial law?
It may damage my sons’ relationship with their grandparents if the “friend” does not receive any money from the sale. Also, knowing that he’d borrowed the initial money would I pay back only the $20,000 I was given?
I am someone who tries to do the right thing morally and ethically irrespective of any legal obligations (or lack thereof). Am I a chump for even considering paying the friend anything?
Okay, what would YOU do?