Did Jesus' death redeem the betrayal of Judas?

I cannot parse these words you are trying to put in my mouth. Try again.

God’s plan would have failed if Pharoah had let the Hebrews go before God killed the first born of Egypt. God is a monster without remorse.

Your contention is directly quoted

This is not the God I worship, so sorry I don’t know what God you are talking about.

Do you perhaps have any charges against Jesus you wish to bring forth?

You also can’t fall headlong when you’re hanging. That’s not the only contradiction between those two accounts, by the way. In one version Judas gives back the silver, in the other he buys a field with it.

If reality is subjective or at least partly so you can have that.

If logic is illogical or at least partly so you can post that.

Sorry, I couldn’t resist. You may consider at least using an external structure (syntax) when you make an argument that doesn’t sense make any.


To get back to the OP, I think that some people here may perhaps be interested in what some Orthodox writers have said on the matter.

Judas certainly could have repented, and received forgiveness, as huge and deliberate as his sin was. However, unlike certain other individuals, such as Peter, he did not have “tears of repentance” and so was not truly repentant, or a least, not repentant enough. Even if he did throw down the silver (and YES, VIRGINIA, that certainly does make for a flat contradiction!) that does not mean he truly repented. (Only that he was self-disgusted?) And we are not supposed to commit siucide, no matter what we do.

That’s not what I am saying, that’s just what I remember from EO circles.

- Jack

But it isn’t, so you don’t.

And the LORD said unto Moses, Go in unto Pharaoh: for I have hardened his heart, and the heart of his servants, that I might shew these my signs before him:
And that thou mayest tell in the ears of thy son, and of thy son’s son, what things I have wrought in Egypt, and my signs which I have done among them; that ye may know how that I am the LORD.

As a Jew, obviously I have all sorts of things to say – but I don’t want to hijack this thread overmuch. Let’s just stick to whether the actions of the Pharaoh and Judas involved free will or whether an outside influence was at play with no mention made of either man (or anyone else) asking the supernatural entity in.

You did not quote my words, you fabricated your own twisted strawman that you found easier to attack. Do not misattribute words to me again; and if you must, at least use a modicum of care with your spelling and grammar, so we can figure out what you are braying about.

What is your take on 2 Sam24:1 compared to 1 Chron 21:1 then?

To me based on those 2 verses Satan could do something that the Lord gets blamed for.

Based in Job Satan and the Lord are 2 separate beings.

Do you have any charges against Jesus you wish to bring forth?

Then explain the apparent discrepancies in the gospels and for this case in acts and all over in the OT without discrediting them. I’d be interested in a viable alternate explanation as opposed to the 4 kingdoms throughout the earth as differing realities as described in Daniel?

The fact that they contradict each other so glaringly discredits them much more than I could ever hope to.

So what? The question is whether the guy in question, be it the Pharaoh or Judas, (a) is acting of his own free will, or (b) would have made a different decision but for a supernatural entity hardening his heart or entering into him or whatever. I don’t care whether it’s God or Satan; I merely care, for purposes of this thread, whether it’s someone other than the ordinary-looking guy who walks around doing stuff and saying things.

This is the kind of stuff that makes GD occasionally insufferable.

The OP asked a fairly straightforward that could have been answered in a factual straightforward without taking any position on doctrine and/or dogma.

I disagree with DtC more than I agree with him, but I respect that he’s able to render his view on OPs like this; understanding that his answer doesn’t implicitly make him a theist.

Aren’t you the proud owner of one of the more impressive claims about biblical knowledge/prowess?

No, Jesus was just another of god’s innocent victims.

I curse the name of the holy spirit, and reject god’s love for all eternity. There, I am free of his cruel influence forever.

So in other words just repeating other people’s view’s. Perhaps they would explain their points instead.

On the basis of 2 Sam24:1 compared to 1 Chron 21:1 we not only have the real possibility of Satan hardening the heart of Pharaoh, but something much larger. That God is willing to take the blame and punishment (via Jesus) for Satan, which means Jesus even redeemes Satan, so Jesus also redeems all others including Judas.

I believe it is clear from the NT that they were under the control of Satan, so no they were not under their free will.

In the case of Pharaoh it is pretty clearly inferred that yes Pharaoh would have made a different decision if his heard was not supernaturally hardened.

Fear Itself, I got great news for you. the god you are talking about is horrible and a liar and deceiver and goes by the name Satan. And yes Jesus was one of Satan’s innocent victims as well as many many people in OT times.

There is hope for you yet :slight_smile:

I thought the Christ was sacrificed to remove the stain of the original sin - eating of the fruit of the knowledge of good and evil - from our souls, not for the personal sins we would committ. Do I have that wrong?

Why don’t you stick to using people’s original words, because you tend to be so far off the mark when you turn the them into “other” words that they are unrecognizable.