In the Pit Thread,An Gadaí suggests that mac_bolan00 was banned for being an anti-semite. (post 238)
Is that the reason, or was it more general than that?
In the linked posts, he calls **Kolga **a stupid semite (not sure if that’s hate speech or not… ) But he was replying to a post by **Kolga **which read:
(bolding mine).
Now **Frank **was nice enough to report the post from mac_bolan00, but did he report the post from **Kolga **that seemed to evoke his “stupid semite” comment?
I’m not defending **mac_bolan00 **at all. I never heard of him. But I want to understand why there seems to be a double standard. The use of the word semite isn’t hate speech. I looked up the definition just to be sure, and there wasn’t any mention of the word being used as an insult. One of the definitions was simply “a jew”.
Now, in reading further in that thread, **Kolga **seems to have quoted him as calling her a “stupid yid”, but apparently **mac_bolan00 **edited it out. I can’t know for certain, although this is my assumption based on the postings.
So, was he banned for the “yid” comment?
That’s generally accepted to be an insulting, derogatory term, so I can see him getting warned for that one. Except for one thing… he edited his own post, so only a few people got to see it. Not justifying it (and his explanation in that thread was total BS IMO), but it wasn’t out there for long and it was changed. Does the use of one derogatory word get a poster banned?
The rest of the thread degenerated quickly into a bunch of accusations and denials, along with some very strange posts by mac_bolan00. To imagine he was a troll is not hard to do.
But what was his history on the board? He was around since April, and he had 1700+ posts. Was this his normal shtick? Someone with that many posts should have been on the moderator’s radar screen long before the “it’s Merry Christmas, not Happy Holidays” thread.
Just looking for some clarification. I’d also like to ask why saying “whiny-ass christian” isn’t hate speech.
Thanks.