Qieesh! Still goes down the tubes, one way or another.
Right, but it’s orgasm without visible or palpable ejaculation, so I believe it fits the criteria **Telperian **set: “orgasms without shooting”. Your assertion that “Any man who says he can come without shooting … is just trying to get a rise out of you.” is incorrect.
It’s palpable okay - just goes backwards and inwards rather than forwards and upwards. Then you pee it out, at which point it becomes visible (to be sure, as visible as the head on top of the Guinness), and out with the urine goes all your precious qi.
Have tried that before. Orgasm still happened, though not so enjoyable as usual. It was, however, dry. Didn’t allow me multiple orgasms, and I didn’t notice the “pee thing,” though I don’t remember particularly checking. I haven’t done that in years, however, because the orgasm isn’t as good and it’s a little uncomfortable.
Just my $.02, and waaaaay TMI.
Ditto, to the word. Good for mess control and very little else. This technique was used for contraception under the name of coitus saxonicus, supposedly 'cos the Saxons used it, though it’s far from sure-fire for obvious reasons.
Geez, all **telperian **wanted to know was if “dry ejaculation” was plausible. I was trying to be all delicate and ladylike. Let me try again:
With retrograde ejaculation, there’s no spooge. No “shooting”. No mess, no muss, no fuss. No seed is spilled, no jism on the sheets, no foam where she roams, no pancake batter to be beaten, no tadpoles to corral, no cum to come, no cream to whip, no man milk to slurp, no drizzlin’ drizz, dick dreck, penis pudding or man chowder.
And no clean up for me.
Because it’s a physiological impossibility.
There’s still an ejaculation, though, so it’s not really “dry.”
If nothing else, this thread was worth it for that post alone. 
Hee! You didn’t need to try to be delicate, though. I think I could have handled it 
The man milk bit really cracked me up, though, as I was talking about blow jobs not ten minutes ago.
Several things to say about non-squirting orgasms.
But first: 45 yo straight male used to be 2-5 times a day, then I got married and down to 1-2 a day then the kids grew up and it was down to once a day then I got divorced and it is back up to 1-3 times a day.
On the hi-jack: I sometimes wear a tight ring around the base so there is no mess for the GF, It all comes out when I take the ring off, not when I pee, nothing in the bladder, the internal tubing just kind of stretches out.
A few weeks ago the GF and I were having a discussion about my level of interest in sex and she said “If I asked you to lick me three times a day, you would soon get tired of it.”
I took her up on the offer and have been keeping up so far. I find, after the act, I have kind of leaked clear lube but not actually “made the mess” but I find I am just as satisfied as if I did.
I have been told by two different professors of human sexuality at two different universities that orgasm and ejaculation are two different things and one can occur without the other. Dry orgasms are most common amoung prepubescent boys, but it is not unheard of for them to occur in healthy adult males.
Depends on how “orgasm” is defined. Much like “g-spot”. The confusion keeps the sexologists busy, anyway.
I didn’t say they weren’t two different things. I know they’re two different things. but in a male who is past puberty, you can’t have an orgasm without an ejaculation. Your cites don’t support you, by the way. They talk about ejaculation without orgasm, “dry” orgasms in prepubescent boys, delayed ejaculations in adult males and (rarely) continued orgasm after ejaculation in adult males. None of those things really amount to dry orgasms in adult males. There’s always some kind of spewage,
About 2 times a day.
Im a 20-year-old heterosexual single male.
Sometimes theres a week when I feel extra horny and will do it 3, 4 or even 5 times a day.
From about.com
How does that not support my argument? Although it is very uncommon, and normally occurs because of retrograde ejaculation, that is not true of all cases
Futhermore, I don’t see what is wrong with characterizing orgasms that occur without ejaculation before a final orgasm with ejaculation as “dry” orgasms. They certainly can not be considered “wet.” Some men naturally have this ability and will experience one or more dry orgasms before a final wet orgasm (unless arousal goes away and then they never have the wet orgasm).
Since you are being stubborn about this, where is your cite that adult men can not have dry orgasms without it being an underlying medical condition or retrograde ejaculation?
Retrograde ejaculations are still ejaculations. Ejaculations which occur seconds before or after the sensation of orgasm are still ejaculations. You didn’t provide any links for your cites so I can’t evaluate them for context or accuracy but I doubt they’re any more valid than your previous cites.
This doesn’t happen. Men cannot have muliple orgasms.
Multiple.
First of all, I never said that retrograde ejaculations are not ejacutations. I am speaking about dry orgasms where there is absolutely no ejaculation. From the sexualhealth website
Unfortunately, I don’t have any of my human sexuality text books on hand, but I will have access to one tomorrow. I can give a cite from it then.
That is untrue. Some men are able to have multiple orgasms. Dr. Marian Dunn did a study on men who are able to do this. She found that while some men were able to ejaculate with each multiple orgasm, other men had dry orgasms until a final wet one. I was unable to find her study online, but you can read details about it in the book “Guide to Getting it on” by Paul Joannides and a few snipits of an interview she did here
Furthermore, I used to be in a relationship with a guy who could have multiple orgasms if sufficiently excited enough.
Again, where are your cites for all of this?