What is the origin of the "ejaculate on the woman's body" finish move in porn?

Same here. I don’t think I’ve ever had an unexpected ejaculation (except for my first orgasm), whether we’re talking sex or masturbation. If you want to do the withdrawal method, you don’t have to ride the orgasm until the very very end. You could pull out well in advance. I mean, you can feel it (or at least I can) building.

Dio, I really don’t understand your problem with the numbers here. If you look at the FDA chart, withdrawal is almost as effective as condom. (14% vs 19% failure with typical use, 3% vs 4% with perfect use.) It’s not something I would recommend from a disease prevention standpoint, but you should have the same objections to condoms as the withdrawal method, then.

This proves what? I have a friend “Jim” who has babies, even though he used a condom. The only 100% effective methods for birth control are obvious. Everything else is a calculated risk, and the numbers for withdrawal are not worse than a lot of other methods.

I think this proves why **Dio **is so against any recommendation for the use of withdrawal for any sort of contraception, since it clearly didn’t work for h…um, Bob. Bob’s story is proof enough for him that it has a pretty significant failure rate.

Her. :wink:

As to the OP, the cum shot is the climax (ha) of the scene. It says, “OK, scene over. Cut to the cigarette.” It provides the natural, expected ending to the sex act. To cut to another scene without it would be to commit * Cinematis Interruptus* and the viewer would think that the scene had ended, uh, prematurely.

Yeah, but she never wants to wear the false nose and I get terrible headaches when I spin around like that.

Since this thread is veering all over creation, so to speak, I thought I’d throw in a swerve of my own.

Perfect-imperfect is not a continuum, it’s an either-or. It’s been a long time since a really new method of birth control came on the market, and the information may even be proprietary, so I’m not going to give a cite on this, just best professional guess.

These data come from the randomized clinical trials that the drug companies have to provide to the FDA before they can sell their drugs or devices. Universities have done the studies for the non-drug ones.

The “perfect use” numbers probably come from smaller studies, where they keep in good touch with the subjects, reminding them of the study protocol, asking about every sex act, and whether the [insert method in question] was used.

The “imperfect use” numbers are what really happens in the real world. Give [method in question] to a whole bunch of people, see what happens. If it’s a good study they will still ask about each sex act and what happened, but that information is used to see how well people actually comply. Once a person is in a group - for example withdrawal, and that group is being compared to another group - for example no birth control use at all, they have to stay in their original group the whole time, no matter what.

It’s a principle of clinical trials called “intention to treat” and it can’t be violated. (Unless you are doing a bad study, and we know that *that *has *never *happened…)

So all of that was to say, astro, that when a couple is going at it, with the man on the edge, plowing into her vagina like a train into a tunnel and ready to blow, no one is going to do any scoring, Olympic or otherwise, of how much semen got into her vs onto her skin. That’s all worked in to the “imperfect use” otherwise known as “reality” column in the statistics. But thanks for the lovely image!
:eek:

I, myself, was bemused by the perfect-imperfect split for ‘male sterilization’. Turns out perfect use actually lowers the risk of pregnancy.

Now, I have had a vasectomy. I’m not sure, exactly, how I’m supposed to ‘improperly’ use it, such as it is.

“Typical” (I’ve not heard the use of the term “imperfect”) failure for a vasectomy is rare, but it can happen. It includes men who have a vasectomy but don’t use a back up method of birth control until their semen can be tested with no sperm in it. That is, after you’re snipped, you still have swimmers, sometimes for a few weeks. If you don’t put a helmet on your private, you may end up with new troops! It also includes men whose vas deferenses (the tubes snipped during a vasectomy), grow back together enough to permit sperm access to the urethra again.

Yeah. That’s right. They can occasionally reverse themselves. Sleep well! :stuck_out_tongue:

But it’s very rare, honest.
ETA: Just thought of one more: that category could also include, like all of them, people who lie. That is, if a woman reports that vasectomy is her primary BC and she fools around on the side and gets pregnant, that’s recorded as a “failure” of vasectomy.

Any porn I watch will be turned off before the money shot. It’s nasty.

Not the semen itself. I don’t mind the looks of it on a vagina or a face as a sort of finishing sequence; but I really don’t want to watch and listen to some guy grunt and groan and squeeze himself for half a minute or so before hand. ::shudder::

And I hardly ever seen the girl having an orgasm, which I actually do like to see. Why the hell is this?

Re: pulling out. Count me in as someone who knows how to do it. You don’t pull out right at orgasm, but a few seconds prior. Sure, it isn’t quite as satisfying, but I only have to do it infrequently for a few days at a time when my wife misses a pill.

I think you’re missing the point, Dio. I wouldn’t recommend withdrawal simply because I know how infallible most people are. But if it works for you, and you know how to perform it, you can be sure it is a pretty good method of contraception. About on par with condoms. Neither would be sufficient if pregnancy is a ‘crisis situation’ for you.

Am I the only one who finds pulling out pretty much on par with cumming inside? You either wrap your hand around yourself, or put the base of your shaft against your partner and your hand on top. It’s still as tight, or tighter than it would be inside. I don’t see the problem. Plus you get the visual aspect, if that sort of thing does it for you.

To go to the OP - I understand the concept of the money shot, but as for why guys WANT to see it, I like how Dewey D explained it to me:

When a guy first starts masturbating, it’s often to a magazine that he lays in front of him. And then when he ejaculates, it gets all over the picture. And for a lot of guys, seeing ejaculation all over a woman is kind of linked to those memories and masturbations.

I worded that terribly, but it makes sense in my head.

Is this common? I’ve heard it referenced in pop culture, but it seems kinda silly and a waste of a magazine to me.

It might happen accidentally, but it does sometimes happen. Seeing as I have a built in crumb-catcher (minus the r and b) - I don’t have this issue. Then again, I’m not usually looking at naked women. . .

What can I say? I like being a girl.

I’m sure it does sometimes happen to some people, but I wonder if its common enough that many men would link early masturbatory memories with the ubiquitous end-of-porno money shot. My gut feeling, as guy, is that the theory is way off, but I’m only one guy and I don’t guy around asking my friends about wanking into magazines.

Yeah, I dunno. Maybe we should start a thread about masturbatory habits. Lemme wake up a bit first and I’ll see if I can get it up (heh).

Wow. Having re-read my last post, I must have been just waking up when I wrote it.

Indeed.

I certainly can tell when I’m about to ejaculate, and even more so when I’m beginning to ejaculate, regardless of whether or not I’m having an orgasm and I’m pretty familiar with them not being synchronized. I’m not sure which of us is more representative of the male gender, but I’m apparently not alone on this one. Actually, I’m pretty surprised by what you’re stating (apparently that you can’t tell you’re about to ejaculate when no orgasm is coming).

Until now, posters in the thread provided figures showing that “perfect use” of withdrawal is about as effective as “perfect use” of non-hormonal contraception methods (3-5% failure rate), and the same thing appears to be true for less than perfect use (15-20% failure rate) of either method.
Note that though I was aware that usual contraception methods were far less effective than usually assumed, and that withdrawal was far more effective than usually stated, I thought the former still was a better bet. But the figures provided so far seem to show that actually the difference is marginal or even non-existent. You failed to provide evidences to the contrary and besides demonstrated you had apparently no clue about the meaning of the failure rates usually provided (over a year, for people having intercourses on a regular basis), hence not making yourself appear as a remotely reliable source.
So, paint me unconvinced. It seems you’re taking your position as an article of faith that doesn’t require any sort of evidence to back it up, and ignore or misinterpret (on purpose or not, I can’t tell) the figures given by other posters in order to support your apparently preconceived opinion.

There’s a very good reason why “They” taught you this stuff when you were a teenager (and I know I’ve had this same conversation with you before, WhyNot, about the efficacy of birth control for teens): teenagers are bad at using birth control, in general, and are more fertile than adults. They are freakin’ terrible at using the withdrawal method. Upwards of a 43% failure rate over the course of 2 years, with the failure rate for condoms being 27.5% in the same time frame.

A 35 year old man, who can control himself better, and who understands the disease risks he’s taking, is much more likely to use withdrawal intelligently and effectively. A 15 year old? Not so much, and 15 year olds are the ones getting these sex lectures, not adults, which is why the evil “They” told you not to use withdrawal. Not out of habit, out of sound reasoning.

This has turned into quite a hijack.