I’m glad you asked this question, actually.
Firstly, I very seriously doubt the following things:
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That in 1890, most American women had to consent to sex with their husbands whenever they demanded, regardless of their mood or desires.
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That in 1890, most American women were essentially held as chattel by their husbands. We’re not talking about a situation in which the male is dominant, i.e. he’s the “head of household” who gets to make major decisions for the household mostly by himself (like: where are we going to live, what home will we live in, where will we move to, what Church will we attend et cetera.)
In the 19th century it was very common for the male to be the dominant partner–but marriage was still viewed as a joint arrangement in which both sides had both rights and responsibilities. Yes, the wife typically had the responsibility of “keeping the home”, but the husband had a responsibility to provide for the wife financially. One of the biggest reasons families wouldn’t give consent for marriages in the 19th century was when they doubted the husband’s financial ability to care for the wife.
Furthermore, in the case of “24/7 sex slaves” the dominant partner is making decisions over extremely trivial things purely for the purpose of showing their dominance of the submissive partner: where they will shop, what time they will go to sleep, what the sub will wear that day.
That is nothing at all like a “normal” 19th century marriage. By and large yes, the males were the dominant partners but they didn’t walk around with their women on a leash.
Even slave owners typically didn’t exert this level of minute and comprehensive oversight of their slaves–primarily if the slave was working and not causing trouble the slave owner was happy not to have to micro-manage their affairs.
But going to the heart of issue, I’ll use a slightly different analogy than someone’s great-great grandmother. Let’s look at black slaves in the United States. They had no say over where they lived, they could be beaten without cause, they could be subjected to rape and sexual abuse (many of the females were), their children could be taken from them and sold to other slave owners on a whim or for financial profit. Must we conclude then, that since millions lived in such a condition in the 19th century, someone being a willing slave today is “normal”? Obviously not.
Black slaves faced the reality of torture and death if they tried to escape slavery. They are blameless in “submitting to slavery.” The slave owner’s aren’t blameless though, they were using the power of the State and the society in which they lived to exploit these people for financial gain. I’m lead to believe many slave owners knew their actions were morally indefensible.
The key thing for many people seems to be choice–enslavement of blacks was wrong because there was no choice, but “two consenting adults” that’s a different thing.
I argue that there are not two consenting adults. If I have sex with someone who is comatose, or mentally incompetent, in most states I have committed a serious crime because I have taken advantage of the person’s mental incompetence for my own gratification. Likewise, if I have sex with children, that is a crime (this is why the phrase is consenting adults it isn’t the age but the mental incompetence that comes with it that is the key factor.) People who are sick, two young, physically incapacitated et cetera don’t have the capacity to willing enter into sexual relationships. Anyone willing to be a “24/7 sex slave” likewise has proven by entering in to such a relationship that they lack the mental capacity to look out for their own best interests. They should be wards of the state or appointed a guardian. They should not be beaten and raped by an abusive sadist who is lucky enough to come into possession of them–all under the guise of “consent.”