While I would not state it in the way you have, I believe the basic concept is in line with the exception of the salvation of the children through Jesus. As the successive generations bear more and more sin (4 generations seem to be the limit set by God), the will cry out to God, accept Jesus (which is a marriage, the 2 (the oppressed child and Jesus are now a single person), Jesus has already paid the price of sin and that child goes free. That child may rest ‘die’ till Jesus comes, or may be taken directly up to heaven, which appears to be rarer, but IMHO still happens throughout the ages, either way all sin is removed forever from that person who will live in the Kingdom of God forever.
Here is the transition:
You used the term ‘fact’ which was also in the other post on this. God does not deal with ‘fact’, they are foolishness to Him, He deals with truths. He commands us 'do not lean on your own understanding".
I feel the easiest way to see past the ‘facts’ that man has taught you is to answer the question did King David know Jesus? The conclusion that God has lead me to is regardless of what we have been taught about time, yes he must have. I can’t find it right now but there was even a direct comparison between the Lord’s Prayer and a prayer of King David, different words were used but it was a phrase by phrase direct relationship.
Satan was created by humans so they could blame someone other than themselves for the evil they do. The concept that evil comes from somewhere OUTSIDE humanity has been a huge hindrance to our species’ ability to mature.
Humans often do evil. Some humans ARE evil. Satan is just a convenient excuse.
Satan has a strange position in Judaism. Unofficially, there are the same folk traditions as in Christianity. Officially, Satan is just a position roughly analogous to prosecuting angel and the urge to do evil comes from within our selves.
Regardless of Satan’s existence or non-existence, he cannot be used as an “excuse” for anything.
“BILLY! YOU KILLED YOUR OWN MOTHER WITH A SPORK?!”
“Well gee whiz, I was influenced by Satanic spiritual forces!”
“Oh, phew. THAT’S a relief.”
I meant that Satan is used as a spiritual excuse, not a legal one. Satan is an attempt to pretend that evil is not naturally present in humans, but something that some outside force compels upon us.
JayJay I just saw an ad for Tyler Perry’s new movie. It’s titled I Can Do Bad All By Myself. Perhaps it will yield some clues on this whole ‘Satan made me do it’ business.
Rape is a Vulcan mind meld. It of course has nothing to do with sex or even power.
What if I have a penis, but I’m genetically female?
What am I? Who should I marry? Can I be raped?
There are 2 forms of evil, selfishness, not caring about who you hurt, which is redeemable. And intentionally hurting and rejoicing in it, this is the type of evil that comes only from a being who has totally rejected God’s ways - in full knowledge, committed blasphemy against the Holy Spirit - This is the evil of the devil, which sometimes acts through people who have allowed the devil a foothold, but the person is not evil.
[IMHO]Basically the Judaic view is accurate but not complete. Satan is a prosecuting ‘son of God’, not a angel as we commonly think of them. Satan is a heavenly being, such as angels are, and he causes worlds to fall into sin and death so as to live. By us believing his lie we accept his death (separation from God) and He gets the blessings that God wanted for us. He tells us we are unworthy, we believe it and yield that aspect to Satan, etc. He accuses us of all types of things, actually He is the one who has committed these sins and they are just being passed down for us to bear.[/IMHO]
What physical body we have makes no difference to our soul. I believe we may all have male and female spiritual aspects.
A person, demon, angel, devil or nephlinim.
That’s between you and God, but a possibility that comes to mind is a person with a vagina who is genetically male.
While I don’t know if a devil can be raped, all others I believe can.
I did have a very long typed out explanation, but that didn’t post. In God are all things, Satan didn’t create bad, he just is bad and does bad. So light and darkness are a inherent part of God .
Leaning upon your ‘own understanding’ is the very transgression of God’s will that you are committing. You cannot define a logical solution to the paradox, so you have contrived your ‘own understanding’ in direct contradiction of Ezekiel 18:20, and God’s truth.
Attempting to conflate the prayer of King David and the Lord’s Prayer does not substantiate your position, or present a scriptural case for King David’s knowledge of Jesus. Even if King David knew of Jesus, despite the lack of scriptural support, it would not resolve the paradox for the afflicted and punished, or not punished, children prior to the offering of the second covenant. You are refusing to accept God’s paradoxical truth and are trying to devise your own understanding.
In your view, then, it’s not always the person who, so to speak, “looks” male, who is “the” male in the marriage? (And so also concerning the “female”?
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Awesome answer, Kanicbird.
So, if I understand your position, you accept that God both created evil and forms an inherent part of God’s nature. How is it moral that sinless children are punished for evil, which as a phenomena was created by God? Why is humanity punished for the evil of original sin, when this was devised by God, and was at the time something that humans had no understanding of?
IMHO yes I would agree
Not that God created evil, but good and evil are properties of God that always existed. I would WAG that God Himself is going through a refining process, as He would not put us through anything He Himself wouldn’t go through.
This would be in direct contradiction of the scriptural statements outlining God’s perfection. Refining perfection is a logical impossibility. Presumably, since you do not concede that God created evil, he also did not create goodness. God is therefore not the highest moral authority available to mankind. He is merely a proxy for eternal concepts that are non-contingent upon his existence.
Jesus is the firstborn over all creation so he is has been available to everyone born after Him. And there was no one born of creation before Jesus. When He was born He became son of man, as well as son of God.
How does this play out. One such explanation is that Adam (Adam means man) is (also) Jesus, as Adam is identified as son of God (Luke 3:37). Though Adam ate of the fruit, he would have done so because of his love for Eve and that they were one complete being. This made Jesus’ life difficult, thorns and death to mention 2, but was the way to redeem Eve.
Also God does not hold a sin against a person if the person’s heart was right, which in this it appears to me that Adam took the fruit because of his love for Eve, which God designed Adam to totally completely love Eve. Just because God won’t hold a sin against one does not mean that they are totally free and clear, as other gods may get some input.
Regardless of the scriptural support for Jesus being the firstborn over all creation, it does not allow for the redemption of sinless children punished prior to the second covenant. You have not offered a conceivable explanation.
If I am to understand your explanation, mankind is being punished for the original sin of eating an apple from the tree of knowledge, carried out by the physical manifestation of God himself. We are bearing the burden and punishment of a moral sin committed by God. This is, by any logical standard, immoral.