No, gobear, I actually get the picture that’s being painted here, and it’s once again a matter of “rupture” (in the Robinsonian sense) – a failure on the part of both sides to grasp the differences in concept underlying the terminology used.
So:
Marriage(1) is a legally recognized contract undertaken before an agent recognized by the state to solemnize such contracts, under which the parties agree to live as a married couple for the remainder of their lives (unless, of course, such marriage is dissolved by competent legal authority through annulment or divorce, a legal exception not contempated in the formal act of contract). In the U.S., such an agent of the state may be a clergyperson duly recognized by his denomination, or it may be a judge or other civil authority – I believe there are some states where elected clerks holding public office are duly authorized to perform marriages.
Marriage(2) is a covenant between two parties before their higher power – the Judaeo-Christian God or other – formally entered into before a clergyman and normally a congregation of their co-believers.
Marriage(3) is a state in which two persons agree to contract a union equivalent in their minds to one of the above two definitions, regardless of what their legal right to do so may be, without formal recognition by church or state. “Common law marriages” and civil unions outside Vermont are good examples of such unions.
What Joe Cool seems to be saying to my reading is that he and his church believe that in the eyes of God only a marriage(2) is a “real” marriage, but that he and Jersey Diamond feel that legally a marriage(1) should not be so delimited, and that any two adults, including a gay couple, who desires to contract a marriage should not be barred from doing so.
In short, because he has personal feelings about what “marriage” ought to mean to a believer, he’s drawing a distinction between a marriage covenanted before God and the legal state called “marriage” and saying that his church, believing gay sex to be sinful, would not solemnize a marriage(2) between two believing gay people but in his opinion should not object to a marriage(1) that they choose to contract, and should not try to impede laws so permitting.
Exactly where that stance differs from what non-religious gay advocates are calling for, I don’t see. (Those of us who believe that gay people can indeed covenant a marriage(2) before God, of course, have a quite different argument with his POV – but that’s a theological question I don’t think requires thrashing out here unless you and Joe want to analyze it with me.)
Regarding housing, I think Rex Dart’s cite of the applicable Federal law addresses the question. I personally would have religious scruples about renting to His4Ever and her husband, since I feel that the apparent stance she has taken is contrary to God’s will. If I were still the owner of that double house and renting the other half, would I be justified in refusing to house her for her apparent attitudes?
To summarize, while I personally think that refusing to rent to gays is bigotry, I can accept that the religious scruples of some might mitigate against their being willing to so rent, and that the Federal law both penalizes organized discrimination by commercial or governmental rental operations and allows for such scruples to be exercised in restricted cases. As such, given the imperfect state of the real world, it is an excellent compromise that both protects the rights of the potential renters and the viewpoints of the occupant-landlords.